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I’m sorry if this has been discussed, but why did Colorado get the ball first to start both overtimes?

DerkDawg1027

DerkDawg1027

“It was a rebuilding year.” -Nick Saban
Gold Member
Dec 27, 2008
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Has to either be a mistake or a new rule, because in years past, getting it first in OT1 meant you got to go second in OT2
 
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